Im fairly new here but I've read Boortz's book and I've done a fair amount of research and I'm a big supportor of the Fair tax.
My question is from what I've read on some of the critics sites, the fair tax taxes governments and those taxes are being included in the revenue calculation. That technically would be false because the Fed gov would be taxing itself so that should NOT be considered income to the government.
Can anyone clear this up?
Also, Im wondering how many people will go to Canada and Mexico to buy a car or other large purchases to eliminate paying the tax.
Again, I'm 110% for the FT, I'm just throwing out some issues.
Thanks,
Phil
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