OK, I'm a newbie here. I have read the main features of the Fair Tax idea, but I have some questions.
Almost nobody knows the first principles of taxation in a free republic. The very first one is that rights may not be taxed. This is an old and well-established principle in common law, but who pays attention to it? It means that the state (in this case the federal state), being a creature of the people and not the source or arbiter of their rights, does not have the legitimate power to interfere with them in the exercise of those rights, either by regulation or taxation.
On top of that, the Constitution empowers the Congress to 'lay and collect' duties, imposts and excises, and it may lay and collect capitation or other direct taxes by apportionment only (which, in effect, turns it into an indirect tax).
How does the Fair Tax, being a sales tax, make it over these two hurdles? Since we have a right to conduct lawful transactions (it is not a privilege which may be granted, denied, revoked or modified by the state), how can the Congress tax it? And since the Constitution does not empower the Congress to 'lay and collect' taxes other than duties, imposts and excises (note the absence of 'sales taxes'), how can such a tax be constitutional?
Just wonderin'.
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